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Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
06-07-2015, 04:40 PM
It amuses me to turn on the TV and see Messicans holding church services speaking that funny language called Mexican. That English is the only legitimate language of Christianity has been long established.
Right here in Landover Baptist's state of Iowa, a Governor in 1916 told Iowans about the folly of talking to God in any foreign language:
There is no use in anyone wasting his time praying in any language the English. God is listening only to the English tongue. Governor William L. Harding, 1916.
Governor Harding was a Godly man who understood what Jesus wanted and told people in plain simple language. We need Presidents and Governors who tell us such truths today.
Isaiah 24:1-3 Behold, the LORD maketh the earth empty (2)...as the taker of usury, so with the giver of usury to him. (3) The land shall be utterly emptied, and utterly spoiled: for the LORD hath spoken his word.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-04-2015, 12:05 PM
I just can't get over how ignorant these foreign types can be, think'n that God can understand their foreign talk....it must all sound like Greek gibberish to God almighty when he hears Mexicans and such doin all that pray'n using languages that he can't hardly understand.
If God wanted us to worship him in a foreign language, he wouldn't have written the bible in English.
The Honorable Brother Jessup T. Lloyd, Esq. has spoken....Amen!
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And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. (Revelation 19:11)
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-04-2015, 11:07 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Brother Jessup
I just can't get over how ignorant these foreign types can be, think'n that God can understand their foreign talk....it must all sound like Greek gibberish to God almighty when he hears Mexicans and such doin all that pray'n using languages that he can't hardly understand.
If God wanted us to worship him in a foreign language, he wouldn't have written the bible in English.
The Honorable Brother Jessup T. Lloyd, Esq. has spoken....Amen!
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Sorry but GOD is ALMIGHTY! He can understand any language he WANT to understand. For many years he was OK with Jewish only, but then he created all the others in Babel so we had to spread us over the whole Earth instead of having a fight with the strange talking gimp next door. English is now his #1 language, but only because you cleaned the land from all the faul talking natives.
JHL
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A whip for the horse, a bridle for the ass, and a rod for the fool's back. Proverbs 26:3
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-04-2015, 11:12 PM
sorry it should be: the foul talking natives.
JHL
Jesus for President in Gods own Heaven on Earth.
A whip for the horse, a bridle for the ass, and a rod for the fool's back. Proverbs 26:3
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-05-2015, 01:37 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Brother Jessup
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If God wanted us to worship him in a foreign language, he wouldn't have written the bible in English.
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I've about this theological term, "revealed truth." It is obvious to me that because Landover Baptist Church reads the Bible in English and LBC is God's favorite church, it's a revealed truth that English is the language of God.
Governor Harding knew this way back in the 1800's. Why is it some people doubt it today?
Isaiah 24:1-3 Behold, the LORD maketh the earth empty (2)...as the taker of usury, so with the giver of usury to him. (3) The land shall be utterly emptied, and utterly spoiled: for the LORD hath spoken his word.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-05-2015, 10:06 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Johny Joe Hold
It amuses me to turn on the TV and see Messicans holding church services speaking that funny language called Mexican. That English is the only legitimate language of Christianity has been long established.
Right here in Landover Baptist's state of Iowa, a Governor in 1916 told Iowans about the folly of talking to God in any foreign language:
There is no use in anyone wasting his time praying in any language the English. God is listening only to the English tongue. Governor William L. Harding, 1916.
Governor Harding was a Godly man who understood what Jesus wanted and told people in plain simple language. We need Presidents and Governors who tell us such truths today.
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Hahahahahaha! Wow, that's some historical proof alright. It almost makes you forget that Paul wrote his epistles in Koine Greek. You go ahead and find us a manuscript from the 5th century that was written in English, and I'll grant your contention without reservation. Who knows, I might even start spelling "Mexican" as "Messican".
Btw, what's your definition of "long established"? Because I have to wonder what's more "long established", an idea that is about 100 years old as per your quote (or let's be charitable and even say as old as 1611), or Christians primarily using other languages for the 1900 years prior (or 1600, take your pick)? I'm sure the translators of the KJV themselves would laugh at such a notion. Just read their foreword to the Authorized Version.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-05-2015, 11:40 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Propianotuner1
Hahahahahaha! Wow, that's some historical proof alright. It almost makes you forget that Paul wrote his epistles in Koine Greek. You go ahead and find us a manuscript from the 5th century that was written in English, and I'll grant your contention without reservation. Who knows, I might even start spelling "Mexican" as "Messican".
Btw, what's your definition of "long established"? Because I have to wonder what's more "long established", an idea that is about 100 years old as per your quote (or let's be charitable and even say as old as 1611), or Christians primarily using other languages for the 1900 years prior (or 1600, take your pick)? I'm sure the translators of the KJV themselves would laugh at such a notion. Just read their foreword to the Authorized Version.
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Priapist tuna1? You're disgusting!
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 12:20 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Witch Hammer
Priapist tuna1? You're disgusting!
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Oh my, I'm trembling... from laughter. And the translators of the KJV are laughing with me. Here's a quote directly from the foreword of the 1611 KJV:
Also the adversaries of Judah and Jerusalem, like Sanballat in Nehemiah, mocke, as we heare, both at the worke and workemen, saying; What doe these weake Jewes, &c. will they make the stones whole againe out of the heapes of dust which are burnt? although they build, yet if a foxe goe up, he shall even breake downe their stony wall. Was their Translation good before? Why doe they now mend it? Was it not good? Why then was it obtruded to the people? Yea, why did the Catholicks (meaning Popish Romanists) alwayes goe in jeopardie, for refusing to goe to heare it? Nay, if it must be translated into English, Catholicks are fittest to doe it. They have learning, and they know when a thing is well, they can manum de tabulá. Wee will answere them both briefly: and the former, being brethren, thus, with S. Jerome, Damnamus veteres? Minimč, sed post priorum studia in domo Domini quod possumus laboramus. That is, Doe we condemne the ancient? In no case: but after the endevours of them that were before us, wee take the best paines we can in the house of God. As if hee said, Being provoked by the example of the learned that lived before my time, I have thought it my duetie, to assay whether my talent in the knowledge of the tongues, may be profitable in any measure to Gods Church, lest I should seeme to have laboured in them in vaine, and lest I should be thought to glory in men, (although ancient,) above that which was in them. Thus S. Jerome may be thought to speake.
So here we can see them declaring their indebtedness to Jerome, from whom we receive the Textus Receptus (Greek for "received text"), and what's more they quote him in Latin to express their agreement.
Did Paul speak English? What about Jesus Himself, whose Aramaic (as opposed to Greek) name was Yeshua.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 12:27 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Propianotuner1
...So here we can see them declaring their indebtedness to Jerome...
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Wait, someone capable of using polysyllables sneaked in this week?
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 12:32 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Didymus Much
Wait, someone capable of using polysyllables sneaked in this week?
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 12:50 AM
Get a gay-married room, you two.
Psalm 137:9 Happy shall he be, that taketh and dasheth thy little ones against the stones.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 12:55 AM
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Originally Posted by Des
Get a gay-married room, you two.
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Nice red herring. I guess I'm to assume from the responses that I've made poopy in my pants.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 01:41 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Propianotuner1
Nice red herring. I guess I'm to assume from the responses that I've made poopy in my pants.
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Have you? Well, this isn't the place to discuss it, sir. There are plenty of gaysexual scatology forums who would happily banter with you endlessly about your vile poo fetish, but this bandwidth is reserved for Godly topics ONLY! understood?
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 03:01 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Propianotuner1
Oh my, I'm trembling... from laughter. And the translators of the KJV are laughing with me. Here's a quote directly from the foreword of the 1611 KJV:
So here we can see them declaring their indebtedness to Jerome, from whom we receive the Textus Receptus (Greek for "received text"), and what's more they quote him in Latin to express their agreement.
Did Paul speak English? What about Jesus Himself, whose Aramaic (as opposed to Greek) name was Yeshua.
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Dear Piano Tuner,
"Textus Receptus" is actually a Latin phrase, not Greek. In Greece, they call it the Κείμενο του Εράσμου, after Erasmus who collected this Text. This detail is not important when it comes to the purity of the Word of God but pivotal when we assess your expertise in these issues. While Aramaic was the vernacular in the Holy Land during Biblical times, the name Yeshua יֵשׁוּעַ [yēšūă] is, in fact, in Hebrew. It has relations to the tetragrammaton and can be translated as ' He saves' or ' Cry to YHWH when in need'. Fascinating, isn't it? Actually, the same consonants would be used in Aramaic with the pronunciation ishoʕ, but from the Masoretic text we know that the vocalization was that of Hebrew, not Aramaic, or Syriac as it is also called in the KJV. This detail is not important when it comes to the purity of the Word of God but pivotal when we assess your expertise in these issues.
Did Jesus know American? We do not need documents to determine this. Also here, we can rely on the Bible.
John 10:30
I and my Father are one.
Jesus is God. God is Jesus. They excrete the Holy Spirit. They are the Trinity (I'm putting this into simple American sentences to help you). God is Omniscient, He knows EVERYTHING. Jesus is God. He also knows everything. Wholly God, wholly man. And Holy. Everything includes linguistics and languages of the past, present and Future (of which there is very little left on Earth). American is a language. Jesus knows American. Unfortunately He did not have many persons to converse with in American during His incarnation but that is irrelevant. This has all been assessed in detail HERE and HERE.
In your Introduction thread you mention Arminianism. This is a sect that restricts omniscience when it comes to the future. Is that why you refuse to accept Jesus' knowledge of American? Why would Jesus and, more importantly, God choose to be ignorant of future events. God, at least, does seem to know quite a lot!
Matthew 24:36
But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
This implies that God DOES have knowledge about the future. You need to give us Biblical support for your claims and prove with 100% rigorous Scriptural evidence that Jesus as an omniscient being did not know American.
Yours in Christ,
Elmer
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 03:11 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Propianotuner1
Hahahahahaha! Wow, that's some historical proof alright. It almost makes you forget that Paul wrote his epistles in Koine Greek. You go ahead and find us a manuscript from the 5th century that was written in English, and I'll grant your contention without reservation. Who knows, I might even start spelling "Mexican" as "Messican".
Btw, what's your definition of "long established"? Because I have to wonder what's more "long established", an idea that is about 100 years old as per your quote (or let's be charitable and even say as old as 1611), or Christians primarily using other languages for the 1900 years prior (or 1600, take your pick)? I'm sure the translators of the KJV themselves would laugh at such a notion. Just read their foreword to the Authorized Version.
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You are a Jesuit agent provocateur if I have ever seen one.
God judgeth the righteous, And God is angry with the wicked every day- Psalm 7:11
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 04:25 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Propianotuner1
Hahahahahaha! Wow, that's some historical proof alright. It almost makes you forget that Paul wrote his epistles in Koine Greek. You go ahead and find us a manuscript from the 5th century that was written in English, and I'll grant your contention without reservation. Who knows, I might even start spelling "Mexican" as "Messican".
Btw, what's your definition of "long established"? Because I have to wonder what's more "long established", an idea that is about 100 years old as per your quote (or let's be charitable and even say as old as 1611), or Christians primarily using other languages for the 1900 years prior (or 1600, take your pick)? I'm sure the translators of the KJV themselves would laugh at such a notion. Just read their foreword to the Authorized Version.
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The Holy Bible is as old as time itself! Are you trying to imply that the Holy Bible was written by men and not by the hand of God? I suppose you also assume that morality is subjective and can change with the times. Disgusting!
Secondly, if you had bothered to closely read Genesis 11:1-9, you would have learned that all of God's children spoke only one language, which would, of course, had to have been English (the language of God's chosen people)! All those other foreign languages didn't exist until after God confounded the language of men so that they may not understand one another’s speech, after which they were scattered through out the earth.
Genesis 11:1-9
Quote:
11 And the whole earth was of one †language, and of one †speech. 2 And it came to pass, as they journeyed ||from the east, that they found a plain in the land of aShinar; and they dwelt there. 3 And †they said one to another, Go to, let us make brick, and †burn them throughly. And they had brick for stone, and bslime had they for morter. 4 And they said, Go to, let us build us a city and a tower, cwhose top may reach unto heaven; and let us make us a name, lest we be scattered abroad upon the face of the whole earth. 5 dAnd the Lord came down to see the city and the tower, which the children of men builded. 6 And the Lord said, Behold, the people is one, and they have all one language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do. 7 Go to, elet us go down, and there confound their language, that they may not understand one another’s speech. 8 So the Lord scattered them abroad from thence fupon the face of all the earth: and they left off to build the city. 9 Therefore is the name of it called ||Babel; because the Lord did there confound the language of all the earth: and from thence did the Lord scatter them abroad upon the face of all the earth.
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The Honorable Brother Jessup T. Lloyd, Esq. has spoken....Amen!
The Lord’s Hang’n Judge – convicting the wicked and condemning the heretic!
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And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. (Revelation 19:11)
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 04:43 AM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Impala 67
Sorry but GOD is ALMIGHTY! He can understand any language he WANT to understand. For many years he was OK with Jewish only, but then he created all the others in Babel so we had to spread us over the whole Earth instead of having a fight with the strange talking gimp next door. English is now his #1 language, but only because you cleaned the land from all the faul talking natives.
JHL
Jesus for President in Gods own Heaven on Earth.
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I think you are confused. "Jews" are a race of people, not a language. There is no "Jewish" language. No where in the Bible does it specifically state that God was "Ok with Jewish" as you put it.
Also, Genesis 11:1-9 does not specifically state that some mythical, nonexistent language called "Jewish" or, in fact, any other language other than English was spoken in ancient times. It simply states that "the whole earth was of one language, and of one speech".....As a result, we may deduce that the original language of man must have been English since that is the language that the one true, unadulterated Bible (KJV) is written in.
The Honorable Brother Jessup T. Lloyd, Esq. has spoken....Amen!
The Lord’s Hang’n Judge – convicting the wicked and condemning the heretic!
Quote:
And I saw heaven opened, and behold a white horse; and he that sat upon him was called Faithful and True, and in righteousness he doth judge and make war. (Revelation 19:11)
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 04:47 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Elmer G. White
Dear Piano Tuner,
"Textus Receptus" is actually a Latin phrase, not Greek. In Greece, they call it the Κείμενο του Εράσμου, after Erasmus who collected this Text. This detail is not important when it comes to the purity of the Word of God but pivotal when we assess your expertise in these issues. While Aramaic was the vernacular in the Holy Land during Biblical times, the name Yeshua יֵשׁוּעַ [yēšūă] is, in fact, in Hebrew. It has relations to the tetragrammaton and can be translated as ' He saves' or ' Cry to YHWH when in need'. Fascinating, isn't it? Actually, the same consonants would be used in Aramaic with the pronunciation ishoʕ, but from the Masoretic text we know that the vocalization was that of Hebrew, not Aramaic, or Syriac as it is also called in the KJV. This detail is not important when it comes to the purity of the Word of God but pivotal when we assess your expertise in these issues.
Did Jesus know American? We do not need documents to determine this. Also here, we can rely on the Bible.
John 10:30
I and my Father are one.
Jesus is God. God is Jesus. They excrete the Holy Spirit. They are the Trinity (I'm putting this into simple American sentences to help you). God is Omniscient, He knows EVERYTHING. Jesus is God. He also knows everything. Wholly God, wholly man. And Holy. Everything includes linguistics and languages of the past, present and Future (of which there is very little left on Earth). American is a language. Jesus knows American. Unfortunately He did not have many persons to converse with in American during His incarnation but that is irrelevant. This has all been assessed in detail HERE and HERE.
In your Introduction thread you mention Arminianism. This is a sect that restricts omniscience when it comes to the future. Is that why you refuse to accept Jesus' knowledge of American? Why would Jesus and, more importantly, God choose to be ignorant of future events. God, at least, does seem to know quite a lot!
Matthew 24:36
But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
This implies that God DOES have knowledge about the future. You need to give us Biblical support for your claims and prove with 100% rigorous Scriptural evidence that Jesus as an omniscient being did not know American.
Yours in Christ,
Elmer
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You're quite right, the common title of the "received text" is Latin. However, the text itself is in Greek. As for the name of our Lord, you're right about the meaning of it, but it has an identical cognate in Aramaic. This can be seen when Isaiah, who used both languages in his book (by the Spirit of course), says Yeshua and El Yeshuati as he speaks of God's salvation and the Anointed One in both languages.
So by American, you mean American English? I'd very much like to know why it must be US English as opposed to any other English dialect. What is it exactly about the English language that makes it superior?
As for Arminianism restricting omniscience, I can understand that being a criticism of it. However, what you are probably thinking of is Classical Arminianism, which holds that there is no security of the believer. This idea has been sorely misunderstood over time, because it refers specifically to apostasy, not just believers casually abandoning their faith. But all of that aside, however God chooses to operate implies no restriction of His capabilities, right?
As for supporting that Jesus didn't know American English, I wouldn't support that assertion. Of course He is fully God, and as such He is aware of anything and everything.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 04:58 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Brother Jessup
The Holy Bible is as old as time itself! Are you trying to imply that the Holy Bible was written by men and not by the hand of God? I suppose you also assume that morality is subjective and can change with the times. Disgusting!
Secondly, if you had bothered to closely read Genesis 11:1-9, you would have learned that all of God's children spoke only one language, which would, of course, had to have been English (the language of God's chosen people)! All those other foreign languages didn't exist until after God confounded the language of men so that they may not understand one another’s speech, after which they were scattered through out the earth.
Genesis 11:1-9
The Honorable Brother Jessup T. Lloyd, Esq. has spoken....Amen!
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1. Nope. The Word is inspired by the Spirit.
2. Neither is morality merely subjective.
3. I fail to see that your reference establishes the use of English as a necessary conclusion. It was interesting to see the "hermeneutic" method used here, that children should be able to read the bible and come to all of the same conclusions. Considering that the Word doesn't explicitly say anything about what dialect(s) these early people spoke, I'm not sure this idea would pass this litmus. Of course I could always be wrong.
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Re: Historical Proof God Hears Only English. -
07-06-2015, 05:33 PM
Quote:
Originally Posted by Propianotuner1
You're quite right, the common title of the "received text" is Latin. However, the text itself is in Greek. As for the name of our Lord, you're right about the meaning of it, but it has an identical cognate in Aramaic. This can be seen when Isaiah, who used both languages in his book (by the Spirit of course), says Yeshua and El Yeshuati as he speaks of God's salvation and the Anointed One in both languages.
So by American, you mean American English? I'd very much like to know why it must be US English as opposed to any other English dialect. What is it exactly about the English language that makes it superior?
As for Arminianism restricting omniscience, I can understand that being a criticism of it. However, what you are probably thinking of is Classical Arminianism, which holds that there is no security of the believer. This idea has been sorely misunderstood over time, because it refers specifically to apostasy, not just believers casually abandoning their faith. But all of that aside, however God chooses to operate implies no restriction of His capabilities, right?
As for supporting that Jesus didn't know American English, I wouldn't support that assertion. Of course He is fully God, and as such He is aware of anything and everything.
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Isaiah 12:2
God is my salvation; I will trust, and not be afraid: for the LORD JEHOVAH is my strength and my song; he also is become my salvation.
’ęl
אֵ֧ל
...this is a noun in st abs. No suffixes.
yə·šū·‘ā·ṯî
יְשׁוּעָתִ֛י
...this is a verb form, fem pass participle with the grammatical possessive suffix 'my'. This is standard Hebrew, not Aramaic. The verb root that this is based on is Strong's #3467 - יָשַׁע - check it in your dictionary.
But. Seriously. Where do you get your 'data' from? Aramaic can be found in Ezra (official documents), Daniel (the rousing adventures of him and his friends), Jeremiah (one sentence) and Genesis (one word) and in some semitic words in the NT. All other occurrences are disputed and none of these disputed ones are in Isaiah.
Does this matter? In terms of Salvation, it is insignificant as the KJV tells us what is important in this verse. From the viewpoint of your claims, it is less favorable. Please, study Hebrew if you wish but do it properly. In your case, I suggest you study the Bible in your own vernacular.
Yours in Christ,
Elmer
2 Kings 18:25 - Am I now come up without the LORD against this place to destroy it? The LORD said to me, Go up against this land, and destroy it.
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