Re: New Member of Muslim Faith
Why do you suppose that Allah either couldn't or wouldn't keep the first two revelations (the Torah and the Gospel) from being corrupted, but instead waited until the third revelation (the Qur'an) to keep it from being corrupted? Would an omnipotent and omniscient beting follow the rule of "third time's a charm?" Why wouldn't Allah have been ready, willing, and able to keep the revelation uncorrupted from the get-go? On the other hand, if there's some good reason why Allah allowed the first two revelations to become corrupted, how do you know that the same isn't true of the Qur'an?
Originally posted by Fading Light
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