Quote:
Originally Posted by FatZ2018
And the Original text has been translated and reinterpreted for years and it possible that they could have translated it wrong.
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How?! Please, provide us with something more tangible than
"it is possible that they could"? Let us see. Let us take
one verse, the one that tells us that there are waters above and below and that our world is just a hemispherical bubble.
Genesis 1:6
And God said, Let there be a firmament in the midst of the waters, and let it divide the waters from the waters.
In the original Hebrew it goes as follows:
וַיֹּ֣אמֶר אֱלֹהִ֔ים יְהִ֥י רָקִ֖יעַ בְּתֹ֣וךְ הַמָּ֑יִם וִיהִ֣י מַבְדִּ֔יל בֵּ֥ין מַ֖יִם לָמָֽיִם׃
Now, the pivotal words are obviously "between" and "waters from waters". Between is in Hebrew
בְּת֣וֹךְ. There is a
bsolutely no ambiguity here. It derives from the masc. noun
תָּ֫וֶך (midst) preceded by the common preposition
בְּ, "in". If we cannot decipher the meanings of these two very common words, then we would have to admit that
we do not understand anything about the OT. Next verse is crucial when it comes to
waters above and below.
Genesis 1:7
And God made the firmament, and divided the waters which were under the firmament from the waters which were above the firmament: and it was so.
In Hebrew:
וַיַּ֣עַשׂ אֱלֹהִים֮ אֶת־הָרָקִיעַ֒ וַיַּבְדֵּ֗ל בֵּ֤ין הַמַּ֙יִם֙ אֲשֶׁר֙ מִתַּ֣חַת לָרָקִ֔יעַ וּבֵ֣ין הַמַּ֔יִם אֲשֶׁ֖ר מֵעַ֣ל לָרָקִ֑יעַ וַֽיְהִי־כֵֽן׃- Under - מִתַּ֣חַת, no ambiguities
- Above - מֵעַ֣ל, no ambiguities
- Firmament - לָרָקִ֑יעַ here the word רָקִיעַ֒, Firmament, is combined with the proposition לָ, to.
Verily, no ambiguities, this world was Created by making a safe, dry place between two layers of water. If you deny that, you deny that the Bible is correct. In that case,
where else is it incorrect? Regarding John 3:16? Resurrection? It is possible that they could have translated those wrong and Jesus never rose from the dead, isn't it? And all this is taking place in the past, as we can see from the verbs.
- It was - וַֽיְהִי־, please pay attention to the "waw" or וַֽ that makes this consecutive imperfect. It is the most common verb form in classical Hebrews related to narration in the past tense.
I see no strong indications of "it being possible that they could have translated it wrong." Please, if
you see any problems here or in any verse that I quoted, try to make a
serious claim about it. Compare the KJV text to the
Leningrad Codex. Pinpoint the
errors or
ambiguities of translation. At the moment, you're simply making
unsubstantiated assertions once again based on your "own personal feeling as evidence". Many things are "possible" and it is "possible!" that the translators got it wrong, but
is it plausible? What is the statistical probability that they "got it wrong" regarding these verses? Be
specific! Unless you do that, it is clear what
God was talking about in the verse below:
2 Timothy 4:3
For the time will come when they will not endure sound doctrine; but after their own lusts shall they heap to themselves teachers, having itching ears;
Jesus, have mercy!
Yours in Christ,
Elmer