Quote:
Originally Posted by Zaranith
Can a man have children without a woman. Clearly the answer is no. So I am confused about your point. And why does it matter that the beget word is used for men. I don’t see the point.
Did not Jesus appear to women first after His resurrection. If women are inferior to men, why would he appear to women first?
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Dear sinner,
I am still failing to see
Biblical justification to your claims. The issue you raised has been answered
comprehensively centuries ago, even a Catholic, the "Saint" Thomas knew the answer. The solution is, as expected, in the
Bible.
The
woman was the
cause of the Fall (Genesis 3:6). The woman
caused her own downgrading as
she started the sin of inquiry. Thus, it is fitting that women were the first to see
Christ's glorious Resurrection. It's just simple logic. It's the
reversal of the events in Genesis 3: the culprit received first the
glorious sight of the risen
Jesus
Please look at the verse below and answer this simple question: Does this verse lie? It it does not, case is closed. If it does, can you trust
any part of the
Bible?
Ephesians 5:23
For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church: and he is the saviour of the body.
Yours in Christ,
Elmer