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Originally Posted by Rachael Van Helsing
Fact - The word 'sodomy', defined, does not appear in the KJV1611. Sodoom appears. Sodomites appeared. Sodomy does not appear. Which means that all definitions of secular source are the only source for sodomy.
Which, now that I look at dictionary.com, I see it is a matter of opinion, they do include oral in the various versions. 
But that, incidentally, is in the hetero definition. There's this definition here: |
You are dumb.
The word 'homosexual' doesn't appear in the Bible either, and neither does 'homosexuality'.
With your "logic" that would mean that the Bible doesn't condemn homosexuality.
The ACT of sodomy is explained & defined in the Bible, just that the word itself is not used.
The word can be derived from the Bible however.. As it has been, it is just that the secular definiton has changed with time..
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I know more about the bible than you give me credit for, mr rude. 
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If you seriously believe this then you don't have a clue whatsoever what the Bible says.
And I mean it.
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Seeing as I don't believe your god exists, I'd say so.
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Your beliefs doesn't matter, what matters is the truth.
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If I can understand a fiction novel, I can understand the bible as it's basically the same thing.
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Any proof of this? No?
What a surprise.
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Nope, but dictionary.com evidently agrees with you, being slightly biased towards xtian ways, being US.
The ENGLISH dictionary disagrees and says (for the benefit of those readin who don't want to look up)
You being English should know this. 
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So there is not even ONE secular defintion, but several?
And you dismiss one merely because YOU THINK it is biased?
That's nothing short of pathetic, obviously you are the biased one here.