Hello all,
Firstly, I wanted to applaud your Church for having the courage to bring your message in front of God and all. If that isn't a testament to the strength of God's Will, then I don't know what is.
If it's OK, I would like to pose a few questions. My mission leads me to listen to all of God's creations. I would like to very much hear what you all have to say.
Is man without fault? I believe that all of us can agree that men are not without fault. All you have to do is look at the sins being committed throughout the world by the majority of the world.
I also believe that we can all agree that King James Bible is the literal Word of God. But my question is more about man than God.
We can probably agree that the King James Bible was based off Textus Receptus. But since the Bible doesn't say that the pagan German Catholic author of the Textus Receptus was under God's command, we have to assume that he wasn't. How do we know that he wasn't tempted by the devil?
Also, how can we be sure that a sinner or devil worshiper didn't change a word or phrase of scripture during the thousands of years between the death of our Lord, Jesus Christ, and the King James Bible?
Firstly, I wanted to applaud your Church for having the courage to bring your message in front of God and all. If that isn't a testament to the strength of God's Will, then I don't know what is.
If it's OK, I would like to pose a few questions. My mission leads me to listen to all of God's creations. I would like to very much hear what you all have to say.
Is man without fault? I believe that all of us can agree that men are not without fault. All you have to do is look at the sins being committed throughout the world by the majority of the world.
I also believe that we can all agree that King James Bible is the literal Word of God. But my question is more about man than God.
We can probably agree that the King James Bible was based off Textus Receptus. But since the Bible doesn't say that the pagan German Catholic author of the Textus Receptus was under God's command, we have to assume that he wasn't. How do we know that he wasn't tempted by the devil?
Also, how can we be sure that a sinner or devil worshiper didn't change a word or phrase of scripture during the thousands of years between the death of our Lord, Jesus Christ, and the King James Bible?
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