Originally posted by tomdstone
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Fine,
One more question. How do you justify the Catholic position that God can make Himself (as Jesus) present in bread that contains wheat gluten but not in bread that does not contain wheat gluten? Why is the first thing something that God does do and the second one a thing He does not do? What is the "solum Triticum aestivum" doctrine actually based on? What is the document that has made the Catholic leaders confident that gluten-free does not work but gluten does? That is the issue here. Unless you provide us with the actual evidence that gluten works as Jesus but gluten-free does not we go back to the thing that I desperately try to explain to you!
- It becomes an unsubstantiated claim. Not only by you but by the whole Catholic Church
- That claim includes the notion that Jesus can appear in wheat but not in rice or corn flour-derived products. This is a position that has to based on something else and not only an opinion.
- That makes Jesus a laughing stock.
- If you fail to have Biblical evidence that only wheat works (and that the passages that oppose the whole transubstatiation notion can be dismissed), this new Catholic commandment of Triticum only is just another opinion and not fact.
Exodus 3:14
And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
You could have done at least that much to justify your position. Why did you not do that? Why did you not bother?
Yours in Christ,
Elmer
While this sentence of yours in quite nice the issue we're discussing is
, Apocrypha, historical remains and secular observations always come second. Finally, let us see how the 

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