I John 5:8 is not found in a single greek manuscript before the 16th century, but it is found in the KJV. What I tell you is the truth.
For some reason, the following verses in the KJV are not in other bibles.
matthew 17:21
matthew 18:11
matthew 23:14
mark 7:16
mark 9:44
mark 9:46
mark 11:26
mark 15:28
Luke 17:36
Luke 23:17
John 5:4
Acts 8:37
Acts 15:34
Acts 24:7
Acts 28:29
Romans 16:24
1 John 5:7-8
There are also words in verses that the KJV has that other bibles do not. And words in verses that are missing in the KJV and are present in other bibles. So what might be the cause of this?
The new testament of the KJV is translated from the textus receptus, which was made up of six greek manuscripts. Even the six manuscripts that the textus receptus used did not even have the last 6 lines of revelations, so they used the vulgate to get those last six lines. And even the six greek manuscripts by themselves are all different.
We now now have thousands of manuscripts, dead sea scroll, and thousands of lectionaries. So if the textus receptus contains verses or words not seen in the other thousands of manuscripts, would you still consider it a valid source?
Let's not forget to mention the different grammer the greeks used. We enjoy being able to say sinning, sinned, sin. But the greeks just have sin as a verb. There is no "ing" or "ed" to add at the end of words. All words were written without information known about present/past tense, the bibles we see including the KJV add it (except YLT which assumes all present tense).
And assuming that we know the exact definition of words from greek is crazy. The KJV translates a single greek word to more than 40 different english words. Just a warning for those reading bible verses alone without reading the entire chapter.
For some reason, the following verses in the KJV are not in other bibles.
matthew 17:21
matthew 18:11
matthew 23:14
mark 7:16
mark 9:44
mark 9:46
mark 11:26
mark 15:28
Luke 17:36
Luke 23:17
John 5:4
Acts 8:37
Acts 15:34
Acts 24:7
Acts 28:29
Romans 16:24
1 John 5:7-8
There are also words in verses that the KJV has that other bibles do not. And words in verses that are missing in the KJV and are present in other bibles. So what might be the cause of this?
The new testament of the KJV is translated from the textus receptus, which was made up of six greek manuscripts. Even the six manuscripts that the textus receptus used did not even have the last 6 lines of revelations, so they used the vulgate to get those last six lines. And even the six greek manuscripts by themselves are all different.
We now now have thousands of manuscripts, dead sea scroll, and thousands of lectionaries. So if the textus receptus contains verses or words not seen in the other thousands of manuscripts, would you still consider it a valid source?
Let's not forget to mention the different grammer the greeks used. We enjoy being able to say sinning, sinned, sin. But the greeks just have sin as a verb. There is no "ing" or "ed" to add at the end of words. All words were written without information known about present/past tense, the bibles we see including the KJV add it (except YLT which assumes all present tense).
And assuming that we know the exact definition of words from greek is crazy. The KJV translates a single greek word to more than 40 different english words. Just a warning for those reading bible verses alone without reading the entire chapter.
Genesis 1:1 In the beginning God created the heaven and the earth




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