I ask because I recently read this disturbing item:
Two of the most important influences on the English language were the King James Version of the Bible and the plays of William Shakespeare. Some go so far as to claim that Shakespeare helped to translate the KJV.
Take a look at Psalm 46...
God is our refuge and strength, a very present help in trouble. Therefore will not we fear, though the earth be removed, and though the mountains be carried into the midst of the sea; Though the waters thereof roar and be troubled, though the mountains shake with the swelling thereof. Selah. There is a river, the streams whereof shall make glad the city of God, the holy place of the tabernacles of the most High. God is in the midst of her; she shall not be moved: God shall help her, and that right early. The heathen raged, the kingdoms were moved: he uttered his voice, the earth melted. The LORD of hosts is with us; the God of Jacob is our refuge. Selah. Come, behold the works of the LORD, what desolations he hath made in the earth. He maketh wars to cease unto the end of the earth; he breaketh the bow, and cutteth the spear in sunder; he burneth the chariot in the fire. Be still, and know that I am God: I will be exalted among the heathen, I will be exalted in the earth. The LORD of hosts is with us; the God of Jacob is our refuge. Selah.
If one counts 46 words from the beginning of the chapter, one comes to the word "shake." Discounting the word Selah (the Hebrew equivalent to Amen), we find the same thing at the end of the chapter. The word "spear" is 46 words from the end of the chapter. Remarkably, Shakespeare was 46 in 1610 when the text was being prepared for printing!
While there is no solid counterargument to the assertion that the Shakespeare message in Psalm 46 is purely coincidental, it should be noted that you can only find it in the KJV. All subsequent translations have either changed one of the words, or rearranged some words so they do not fall where they need to be. Why was the KJV arranged the way it was, while all other translations were different? Of course, this could be asked of any chapter, but the fact that there seems to be a pattern in Psalm 46 makes us think that it might be intentional.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ +++++
Was it a member of a NON-AMERICAN ACTING TROUPE (and one, like so many in his profession, of questionable sexuality?) that wrote our Blessed Book?
I refuse to believe it. But how do we squash this despicable rumor?
Two of the most important influences on the English language were the King James Version of the Bible and the plays of William Shakespeare. Some go so far as to claim that Shakespeare helped to translate the KJV.
Take a look at Psalm 46...
God is our refuge and strength, a very present help in trouble. Therefore will not we fear, though the earth be removed, and though the mountains be carried into the midst of the sea; Though the waters thereof roar and be troubled, though the mountains shake with the swelling thereof. Selah. There is a river, the streams whereof shall make glad the city of God, the holy place of the tabernacles of the most High. God is in the midst of her; she shall not be moved: God shall help her, and that right early. The heathen raged, the kingdoms were moved: he uttered his voice, the earth melted. The LORD of hosts is with us; the God of Jacob is our refuge. Selah. Come, behold the works of the LORD, what desolations he hath made in the earth. He maketh wars to cease unto the end of the earth; he breaketh the bow, and cutteth the spear in sunder; he burneth the chariot in the fire. Be still, and know that I am God: I will be exalted among the heathen, I will be exalted in the earth. The LORD of hosts is with us; the God of Jacob is our refuge. Selah.
If one counts 46 words from the beginning of the chapter, one comes to the word "shake." Discounting the word Selah (the Hebrew equivalent to Amen), we find the same thing at the end of the chapter. The word "spear" is 46 words from the end of the chapter. Remarkably, Shakespeare was 46 in 1610 when the text was being prepared for printing!
While there is no solid counterargument to the assertion that the Shakespeare message in Psalm 46 is purely coincidental, it should be noted that you can only find it in the KJV. All subsequent translations have either changed one of the words, or rearranged some words so they do not fall where they need to be. Why was the KJV arranged the way it was, while all other translations were different? Of course, this could be asked of any chapter, but the fact that there seems to be a pattern in Psalm 46 makes us think that it might be intentional.
++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ +++++
Was it a member of a NON-AMERICAN ACTING TROUPE (and one, like so many in his profession, of questionable sexuality?) that wrote our Blessed Book?
I refuse to believe it. But how do we squash this despicable rumor?

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