Originally posted by Rev. Jim Osborne
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What I am saying is that, if he believes that the word of Satan, when spoken unto me is what I have mistaked for The Lord, then by what logic can we rule out the possibility that the four well-meaning men who wrote the Bible were not also affected by the same misfortune? Who is to say that it is their voices against mine? Because there are more of them? That, in it's self is a contradiction, if you say the devil, like god, is powerful and omnipresent then why should he not be able to affect four men in the same ways as you claim he affects me?



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