Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops...

[Miss Cassandra]

I always wanted to hear your answer to this, since my father beat me up with his gun for asking "ungodly questions." You often quote this Verse to the good people that happen to come across this forum:

2 Timothy 3:16: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

And this would mean, according to you, that all of the bible is "divinely inspired," in particular that part about smashing babies' skulls in.

However, why then does Paul say the following:

1 Corinthians 7:12: But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

1 Corinthians 7:25: Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful.

If Paul here openly states that it is no commandment of the Lord, how can it be "word of god" at the same time? Can something be word of god and not word of god at the same time?

And then to think, that Paul wrote all of the above verses. Pretty stupid, if you ask me.

[Ezekiel Bathfire]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..



Nice try witch! Paul was inspired by God in all he said and did. Why, it was just as if God used him as an amplifier.

And to shut you up asking, the answer to your next question is, "If God had appeared and said it, everyone would have been killed by His Magnificence."

[...]Pretty stupid, if you ask me.

...which no one did for obvious reasons.

[Pastor William Nathaniel Sampson]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

2 Timothy 3:16: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

That's a direct command.

However, why then does Paul say the following:

1 Corinthians 7:12: But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

1 Corinthians 7:25: Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful.

If Paul here openly states that it is no commandment of the Lord, how can it be "word of god" at the same time? Can something be word of god and not word of god at the same time?

And then to think, that Paul wrote all of the above verses. Pretty stupid, if you ask me.

Little lady, Paul makes many recommendations that are not commandments.

For example, take a gander at 1 Corinthians 7

8I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, it is good for them if they abide even as I.
9But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn.
10And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband:

You can see Paul makes suggestions sometimes and commandments, even though he isn't God, other times.

I hope that clears it up, Ma'am.

[TruePath]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

I always wanted to hear your answer to this, since my father beat me up with his gun for asking "ungodly questions." You often quote this Verse to the good people that happen to come across this forum:

2 Timothy 3:16: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

And this would mean, according to you, that all of the bible is "divinely inspired," in particular that part about smashing babies' skulls in.

However, why then does Paul say the following:

1 Corinthians 7:12: But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

1 Corinthians 7:25: Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful.

If Paul here openly states that it is no commandment of the Lord, how can it be "word of god" at the same time? Can something be word of god and not word of god at the same time?

And then to think, that Paul wrote all of the above verses. Pretty stupid, if you ask me.

EXCELLENT POST!!!

ALLAH'U AKBAR!!!

I could not have put it better myself, friend.

The reason is because the Bible has been tampered with by so called "prophets" like Paul (who has nothing to do with God or The Truth as revealed by Jesus (PBUH).

The early Christians lost the book given to Jesus (PBUH) and so concocted all the gibberish now found in the so called "New Testament" which explains all the mistakes, and tamperings and illogical conclusions like the above.

Only The Noble Qur'an has never been tampered with and makes PERFECT SENSE.

Insha'Allah you will all see this when Sharia is brought in and mandatory Islamic Studies are introduced to schools and the wider community thanks to B. Hussein Obama.

ALLAH'U AKBAR!

[Miss Cassandra]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

Nice try witch! Paul was inspired by God in all he said and did. Why, it was just as if God used him as an amplifier.

God used him as an amplifier to say that it wasn't God speaking, but Paul? Is this true christian logic again?

And to shut you up asking, the answer to your next question is, "If God had appeared and said it, everyone would have been killed by His Magnificence."
...which no one did for obvious reasons.

Oh, the "why didn't God kill Moses" dilemma. We'll touch on that later maybe.

Little lady, Paul makes many recommendations that are not commandments.

So they do not have to be obeyed? So much for "following the entire bible."

You can see Paul makes suggestions sometimes and commandments, even though he isn't God, other times.

Which makes it Paul's words, not God's. Exactly.

I hope that clears it up, Ma'am.

Yes, it does, thank you.

Only The Noble Qur'an has never been tampered with and makes PERFECT SENSE.

Insha'Allah you will all see this when Sharia is brought in and mandatory Islamic Studies are introduced to schools and the wider community thanks to B. Hussein Obama.

ALLAH'U AKBAR!

I thank you for your praise, but I don't really think the quran would be an improvement over the bible. To me all misogynic religions are the same. After all, what did Allah create first, heaven:

Sura 79:27-33: Are ye the harder to create, or is the heaven that He built? He raised the height thereof and ordered it;
And He made dark the night thereof, and He brought forth the morn thereof.
And after that He spread the earth,
And produced therefrom the water thereof and the pasture thereof,
And He made fast the hills,
A provision for you and for your cattle.

Or Earth:

Sura 2:29: He it is Who created for you all that is in the earth. Then turned He to the heaven, and fashioned it as seven heavens. And He is knower of all things.

Sura 41:9-12:Say (O Muhammad, unto the idolaters): Disbelieve ye verily in Him Who created the earth in two Days, and ascribe ye unto Him rivals? He (and none else) is the Lord of the Worlds.
He placed therein firm hills rising above it, and blessed it and measured therein its sustenance in four Days, alike for (all) who ask;
Then turned He to the heaven when it was smoke, and said unto it and unto the earth: Come both of you, willingly or loth. They said: We come, obedient.
Then He ordained them seven heavens in two Days and inspired in each heaven its mandate; and We decked the nether heaven with lamps, and rendered it inviolable. That is the measuring of the Mighty, the Knower.

[Robert Jones]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

I always wanted to hear your answer to this, since my father beat me up with his gun for asking "ungodly questions." You often quote this Verse to the good people that happen to come across this forum:

2 Timothy 3:16: All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness

And this would mean, according to you, that all of the bible is "divinely inspired," in particular that part about smashing babies' skulls in.

You are correct. All of the Bible is indeed inspired by God. Including Psalms 137:9. I should note. Verses 8-9 of that chapter change from a lament of David to a prophecy which was quite literally fulfilled.

Psalms 137:8-9: O daughter of Babylon, who art to be destroyed; happy shall he be, that rewardeth thee as thou hast served us: Happy shall he be, that taketh and dasheth thy little ones against the stones.

This prophecy speaks of the fall of Babylon to Cyrus the Great in 539 B.C., and Charles Spurgeon writes, "History informs us that it was literally fulfilled: the Babylonian people in their terror agreed to destroy their own offspring, and men thought themselves happy when they had put their own wives and children to the sword."

However, why then does Paul say the following:

1 Corinthians 7:12: But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.

1 Corinthians 7:25: Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful.

These verses should not be seen as the Apostle Paul saying that he's giving a command that is not from God. He is simply stating that Jesus never directly spoke the things he is writing about. The Divine inspiration is giving to Paul by God and is not a direct quote of Jesus. Paul was answering direct questions by the Corinthian Christians. In order to give an answer he was inspired by the Lord to give an inspired opinion. If you search through the Bible you will indeed find other instances of inspired opinion. Matthew Henry writes in his commentary that Paul "acted faithfully, and therefore his direction was to be regarded as a rule of Christ: for he gave judgment as one who was a faithful apostle of Christ. Though Christ had before delivered no universal law about that matter, he now gives direction by an inspired apostle, one who had obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful." So yes, ALL scripture is inspired by God.

[Miss Cassandra]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

You are correct. All of the Bible is indeed inspired by God. Including Psalms 137:9. I should note. Verses 8-9 of that chapter change from a lament of David to a prophecy which was quite literally fulfilled.

Psalms 137:8-9: O daughter of Babylon, who art to be destroyed; happy shall he be, that rewardeth thee as thou hast served us: Happy shall he be, that taketh and dasheth thy little ones against the stones.

This prophecy speaks of the fall of Babylon to Cyrus the Great in 539 B.C., and Charles Spurgeon writes, "History informs us that it was literally fulfilled: the Babylonian people in their terror agreed to destroy their own offspring, and men thought themselves happy when they had put their own wives and children to the sword."

Ah, taste the Biblical Love of God!

These verses should not be seen as the Apostle Paul saying that he's giving a command that is not from God. He is simply stating that Jesus never directly spoke the things he is writing about. The Divine inspiration is giving to Paul by God and is not a direct quote of Jesus.

Stop, wait. So what you are actually saying is this: Paul said this because he was not "directly quoting Jesus." If that is true, why did he only say it in those two instances? Paul says lots of things in his epistles that Jesus not directly said, you know. Why didn't he say anything like this there? And in these instances, why wasn't he more explicit about this, saying: "this is not God speaking, but it is inspired by God," or something like that? In short, you make no sense here.

Paul was answering direct questions by the Corinthian Christians. In order to give an answer he was inspired by the Lord to give an inspired opinion.

Then how wasn't it "not the Lord, but Paul" that spoke. Did Paul often make no sense whatsoever?

So yes, ALL scripture is inspired by God.

So, no, it isn't.

[Felicity]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

@Miss Cassandra Why do you say the scripture is not inspired by God? #2nd Timothy 3:16

[Miss Cassandra]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

@Felicity Because the Bible says so. #1 Corinthians 7:25

[Felicity]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

@Miss Cassandra That does not seem to say scripture is not inspired by God! That God does not have a commandment for everything is not the same as Him not having inspired all of the scripture.

[Bobby-Joe]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

@Felicity Because the Bible says so. #1 Corinthians 7:25

Miss Cassandra, will you quite using the same tired old unbeliever cheep trick of quoting The Bible in context? Yes, we TRUE Christians have heard there arguments over and over again. Tell you what, I have a dare for you, why don't you try and extra Biblical source for your point.

[Miss Cassandra]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

@Miss Cassandra That does not seem to say scripture is not inspired by God! That God does not have a commandment for everything is not the same as Him not having inspired all of the scripture.

Felicity, Billy Bob Black already said this, and I answered him here. The point is: if this would not be a commandment, why should you have to obey it? And how do you distinguish between commandments and verses that aren't commandments, and apparently don't have to be obeyed to be a "true christian?"

Additionally, the other verse I quoted (1 Corinthians 7:12) doesn't say anything about commandments at all, but Paul simply says "I, not the Lord."

Miss Cassandra, will you quite using the same tired old unbeliever cheep trick of quoting The Bible in context? Yes, we TRUE Christians have heard there arguments over and over again. Tell you what, I have a dare for you, why don't you try and extra Biblical source for your point.

An extra-bilbical source to prove the bible? I thought you saw the 1611 KJV as the infallible word of god, BJ. Is there a change in doctrine there?

And hearing the same old arguments over and over again is a different thing from answering them.

[Felicity]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

@Miss Cassandra Why so complicated? All scripture is inspired by God, no exceptions, and we have to follow all of it, no exceptions!

[Robert Jones]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

Stop, wait. So what you are actually saying is this: Paul said this because he was not "directly quoting Jesus." If that is true, why did he only say it in those two instances? Paul says lots of things in his epistles that Jesus not directly said, you know. Why didn't he say anything like this there? And in these instances, why wasn't he more explicit about this, saying: "this is not God speaking, but it is inspired by God," or something like that? In short, you make no sense here.

I'm going to break down some of this chapter for you in order to better explain it. It's important to take a look at more than just a couple of verses in the chapter to understand what Paul is talking about.

1 Corinthian 7:1-5 should be looked at first.

"Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a mannot to touch a woman:Nevertheless , to avoid fornication,let every manhave his ownwife,andlet every womanhave her ownhusband: Let the husbandrender unto the wifeduebenevolence:andlikewisealso the wife unto the husband: The wifehathnotpower of her ownbody,but the husband:andlikewisealso the husbandhathnotpower of his ownbody,but the wife: Defraud yenot one the other,exceptitbewithconsentfor a time,that ye may give yourselves to fastingandprayer;andcometogetheragain,thatSatantemptyounotforyourincontinency."

The first five verses have the Apostle Paul directly responding to a question in the letter that he received from the Church at Corinth. Verses 1-5 have Paul answering the first question, most likely regarding celibacy, and he writes, "Nowconcerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman." Paul does not disagree with this statement. Also, this is not contradictory to scriptures as this is in regards to sex outside of marriage and we know what the Bible says about sex outside of marriage (Acts 15:20; 1 Corinthians 5:1; 6:13, 18; 10:8; 2 Corinthians 12:21; Galatians 5:19; Ephesians 5:3; Colossians 3:5; 1 Thessalonians 4:3; Jude 7). However, he does give a command regarding marriage and intimacy within a marriage for those who feel that they need to get married. Mind you, Paul is giving a twofold set of instructions here. The first to the unmarried and the second is to the married or those who plan on getting married.

Verse 6 is the first area that comes in to question as far as whether some of this chapter is inspired by God.

1 Corinthians 7:6

"But I speak this by permission, and not of commandment."

It would be easy to say that this verse is referring to the previous 5 verses; however, notice that verse 6 is the first time that Paul uses the word "I" in the chapter. The next verse tells us that Paul is speaking from experience as being one who does not feel the need to get married and verse eight has Paul instructing those who, like him, do not have the urge to marry.

1 Corinthians 7:7-8

"For I would that all men were even as I myself. But every man hath his proper gift of God, one after this manner, and another after that: I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I."

In verse 9 Paul is once again instruction those who do feel the need to marry.

1 Corinthians 7:9

"But if they cannot contain, let them marry: for it is better to marry than to burn. "

Verse 10 has Paul speaking of a teaching of Jesus (Matthew 5:32), which is why Paul says that “I command, yet not I, but the Lord.”


1 Corinthians 7:10-11

"And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart from her husband: But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife."

Paul continues his own instruction after this verse, and he makes note of this saying, “but to the rest speak I, not the Lord.”


1 Corinthians 7:12

“But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.”

I’ll just briefly go over verses 12-24 as this is instruction that’s not in question throughout the chapter. Verses 12-16 are instructions on the marriage ordinance and divorce for those whose marriage partners are not Christians. Verses 17-24 are a summary of the major aspect of Paul’s traditional teachings which he commanded, without exception, “in all churches” (1 Corinthians 7:17).

Verse 25 is the next point of question.

1 Corinthians 1:25

“Now concerning virgins I have no commandment of the Lord: yet I give my judgment, as one that hath obtained mercy of the Lord to be faithful.”

Concerning the issue of marriage Paul did have a command of Jesus to give the Corinthians; however, in regards to virgins he’s once again using his own experience to instruct. The remaining verses contain the twofold teaching that I’ve mentioned before. For those who are unmarried, Paul is instructing out of experience. For those who are married, Paul is also giving instructions. Verse 27 is really the key to understanding this twofold instruction.

1 Corinthians 7:27

“Art thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed from a wife? seek not a wife.”

The rest of the chapter is just additional instruction for both the married and those who feel the need to marry, and also the unmarried. I hope this makes sense. The only portion of the chapter that comes into question are verses 12 and 25. Each of these cases I've explained in the context of the chapter.

I realize that the Skeptics Annotated Bible makes some interesting points, but it is not looking at this passage in its entire context.

[WWJDnow]

Re: Is all scripture inspired? The bible says NO! And YES! Oops..

Stop, wait. So what you are actually saying is this: Paul said this because he was not "directly quoting Jesus." If that is true, why did he only say it in those two instances? Paul says lots of things in his epistles that Jesus not directly said, you know. Why didn't he say anything like this there?

I think the problem here is that we have Paul's letter to the Corinthians, but not the Corinthians letter to Paul. It is obvious that the Corinthians asked "What did Jesus say on the matter of virgins?" and Paul gave an honest answer to their specific question. That has nothing to do with whether Paul's answers were inspired (they were) or whether Paul's other statements were inspired (they were, too).

In short, you make no sense here.

Just out of curiosity, why do you use a smiley every time you either insult someone without presenting any evidence or incorrectly "restate" our position? Smilies will not save you from the fires of Hell, only repentence through faith in Christ Jesus will do that.

An extra-bilbical source to prove the bible? I thought you saw the 1611 KJV as the infallible word of god, BJ.

We keep showing you the way, we keep showing you that there is good science underlying the Bible, because you are a doubting Thomas who needs external proof to believe. When you face Jesus in the final judgment, you'll understand that we were doing you a kindness.

And hearing the same old arguments over and over again is a different thing from answering them.

It's true, you keep making the same post with different words instead of presenting reasoned arguments.